Have a friend who had his house repossessed at the end of May this year. He has the money to pay all arrears and costs but the lender just wants to sell the house. The house still has all his worldly goods inside .... and he is bent on paying the mortgage lender all arrears and costs ( by electronic payment into his mortgage account )and just moving back in with out permission ( he has access via a window ). IF he did this, exactly what offence is he committing? Would he be technically 'squatting' and what action may ensue?

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If the house was legally reposessed then he'd be trespassing / breaking and entering. The lender probably does not want his business any more if he breached his mortgage contract.

Why doesn't he just buy it when it goes to auction - they always sell for a knockdown price.

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